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CHAPTER 12
Developing and Managing Products

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14. Why
are line extensions more common than new products?
a) They
are higher risk and more expensive.
b) They
are guaranteed to succeed in the marketplace.
c) They
are less expensive and lower-risk.
d) They
require no market research.
e) Modifications
to existing products are very easy.

15. Coca-Cola
has expanded to Diet Coke, Cherry Coke, and Caffeine-free Coke, to name a few.
These are examples of
a) product
modifications.
b) functional
modifications.
c) aesthetic
modifications.
d) line
extensions.
e) product
lining.

16. A(n)
___________ is the development of a product that is closely related to one or
more products in the existing product line but is designed specifically to meet
somewhat different needs of customers.
a) product
modification
b) line
extension
c) quality
modification
d) functional
development
e) aesthetic
extension

17. If
the manufacturer of Cool Whip were to introduce an orange-flavored Cool Whip
and still continue to produce all of its other Cool Whip products, this would
be an example of
a) a
brand extension.
b) line
extension.
c) functional
modification.
d) quality
modification.
e) a
new-to-the-world product.

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18. __________
is the development of a product that is closely related to one or more products
in a firm’s existing product line but is designed specifically to meet somewhat
different customer needs.
a) Quality
modification
b) Line
extension
c) Aesthetic
modification
d) Feature
modification
e) Product
mix modification

19. What
is the primary distinction between a line extension and a product modification?
a) A
product modification results in a completely new product while a line extension
is simply changing an old product.
b) In
both cases an existing product is altered, but the alteration is more dramatic
with a product modification than it is with a line extension.
c) Line
extensions are designed to better meet the needs of the existing market segment
while product modifications target entirely new segments of the market.
d) With
product modifications, the original product is replaced in the product line
while both the old and the new products remain in the case of line extension.
e) Line
extensions are strictly aesthetic changes to an existing product whereas
product modifications consist of changes in quality and functionality.

20. In
product modification, the first issue to consider is whether
a) existing
customers can perceive that a product modification has been made.
b) the
product is modifiable.
c) quality
is modified.
d) modification
will make the product more consistent with customers’ desires.
e) modification
will provide greater satisfaction to the consumer.

21. In
product modification, three conditions must be met to improve a firm’s product
mix: the product must be modifiable, customers must be able to perceive that a
modification has been made, and
a) modification
should make the product more consistent with customers’ desires.
b) competing
companies should not be aware of planned product modifications.
c) modification
should change customers’ desires to provide greater satisfaction.
d) management
must perceive the modification as a reasonable and necessary action.
e) production
costs and materials needed should be limited.

22. Quality
modifications are changes that relate to a product’s
a) dependability
and durability.
b) effectiveness
and versatility.
c) price
and availability.
d) reliability
and value.
e) value
and durability.

23. Bauman
Flooring found a supplier of very inexpensive fibers that could be used to
produce low-grade carpeting at a very low cost. Because Bauman had been facing
stiff competition in the medium-grade carpet industry, it started using the new
material in all of its carpeting and reducing its prices. This is an example of
a(n)
a) aesthetic
modification.
b) line
extension.
c) material
adjustment.
d) functional
modification.
e) quality
modification.

24. Which
of the following types of product modifications inevitably tend to cause firms
to reduce costs in some of the organization?
a) Aesthetic
b) Operational
c) Benefit
d) Functional
e) Quality

25. Changes
that affect a product’s versatility, effectiveness, convenience, or safety are
called ___________ modifications.
a) functional
b) formal
c) aesthetic
d) quality
e) package

26. Which
of the following is the best example of a functional modification?
a) Campbell’s
puts more of a higher-grade chicken in its classic chicken noodle soup.
b) A
smoke alarm is modified to be more sensitive to smoke at farther distances.
c) Motorola
uses a battery that allows its cell phones to charge back up more quickly.
d) The
manufacturer of the primer and sealer, Kilz, introduces an odorless variety.
e) Friskies
changes the ingredients in its cat food to a taste that is preferred by most
cats.

27. Functional
modifications usually require that the product be
a) less
specific.
b) limited
to its functions.
c) more
appealing.
d) more
technical.
e) redesigned.

28. When
Conair adds an electrical component that automatically shuts off its curling
irons when they have been left on for more than one hour. This improvement
would best be classified as a(n)
a) brand
extension.
b) product
deletion.
c) aesthetic
modification.
d) market
extension.
e) functional
modification.

29. Changes
that affect the sensory appeal of a product by altering its taste, texture,
sound, smell, or visual characteristics are called ___________ modifications.
a) aesthetic
b) functional
c) operational
d) quality
e) feature

30. Sony’s
design of its new plasma television sets with smoked-glass control panel covers
and other visual changes would be classified as a(n) ___________ modification.
a) functional
b) quality
c) product
extension
d) brand
e) aesthetic

31. The
major drawback to using aesthetic modifications is
a) the
cost of the modifications.
b) that
the value of the modification is determined subjectively.
c) the
need for redesign of the product.
d) a
possible decrease in market share.
e) that
there is no differentiation for the product in the market.

32. If
Conway School Furniture Company provides standard primary school chairs in new
colors to match the interiors of schools, this modification is most likely to
be viewed as a(n) __________ modification.
a) aesthetic
b) functional
c) quality
d) image
e) feature

33. If
buyers choose certain types of products by the way they look, smell, taste, or
sound, marketers should focus most on appropriate
a) line
extensions.
b) quality
modifications.
c) aesthetic
modifications.
d) sensory
systems.
e) functional
modifications.

34. Introducing
new products is risky and so is
a) performing
marketing research.
b) keeping
tabs on the actions of competitors.
c) not
introducing new products.
d) generating
new product ideas.
e) addressing
customers’ concerns about products.

35. A
complex product development process, including an extensive business analysis
to determine the possibility of success, are hallmarks of a
a) genuinely
new product.
b) radically
new product.
c) new
product failure.
d) controlled
new product.
e) market
share advance.

36. A
genuinely new product—like the iPhone once was—offers
a) lower
prices than existing products.
b) at
least two new product features.
c) innovative
benefits to consumers.
d) better
value than existing products.
e) at
least two new product features at a lower price.

37. All
of the following are major steps in developing new products except
a) test
marketing.
b) evaluation
of competitors’ efforts.
c) screening.
d) business
analysis.
e) idea
generation.

38. Outback
Steakhouse wants to expand its line of food products. The managers sent surveys
to customers to determine which food items would appeal to them. Outback is
currently in the __________ phase of new-product development.
a) business
analysis
b) product
development
c) test
marketing
d) screening
e) idea
generation

39. When
marketers at Nabisco meet to identify the types of snacks that young people
want, they are engaging in which phase of new-product development?
a) Idea
generation
b) Business
analysis
c) Test
marketing
d) Commercialization
e) Product
development

40. Marketers
begin to make decisions about labeling, packaging, branding, pricing, and
promotion during
a) commercialization.
b) screening.
c) concept
testing.
d) product
development.
e) test
marketing.

41. Concerns
about cannibalization of current product sales must be addressed in the
___________ phase of the new-product development process.
a) screening
b) concept
testing
c) business
analysis
d) product
development
e) test
marketing

42. What
step in developing new products involves determining whether the product idea
is compatible with company objectives, needs, and resources on a general level?
a) Product
development
b) Evaluation
of competitor’s efforts
c) Screening
d) Idea
generation
e) Business
analysis

43. A
group of managers has been assigned the task of developing a new product, has
listed several good ideas, and is now in the process of assessing each idea to
determine whether it is consistent with the firm’s overall objectives and
resources. The managers are at what stage of the new-product development
process?
a) Business
analysis
b) Product
testing
c) Idea
generation
d) Commercialization
e) Screening

44. Compared
with other phases of the new-product development process, the largest number of
new-product ideas is rejected during the ___________ phase.
a) idea
generation
b) concept
testing
c) business
analysis
d) screening
e) test
marketing

45. The
phase of new-product development in which a small sample of potential buyers
are presented with a product idea through a written or oral description in
order to determine their attitudes and initial buying intentions regarding the
product is called
a) concept
testing.
b) customer
response testing.
c) idea
analysis.
d) test
marketing.
e) screening.

46. Questions
such as “How often would you buy this product?” and “Which features are of
little or no interest to you?” are often proposed during
a) concept
testing.
b) product
development.
c) screening.
d) idea
generation.
e) test
marketing.

47. Which
of the following is the stage of the new-product development process where
customers are first exposed to the new product idea?
a) Screening
b) Concept
testing
c) Business
analysis
d) Product
development
e) Test
marketing

48. Marketers
at Starbucks have generated several ideas for new food products. Management has
assessed whether these ideas are consistent with Starbuck’s objectives and
resources. Several product ideas were dropped after this analysis. The next
stage of development for the remaining product ideas is
a) product
development.
b) idea
screening.
c) concept
testing.
d) business
analysis.
e) test
marketing.

49. Which
of the following phases of new-product development is likely the least costly
for the firm?
a) Commercialization
b) Concept
testing
c) Business
analysis
d) Product
development
e) Test
marketing

50. Karla
tells Jeff that she likes his team’s idea about a new three-lace running shoe
but wants him to put together some figures regarding anticipated sales, costs,
and resulting profits. She is asking Jeff to proceed to which stage of the
new-product development process?
a) Idea
generation
b) Business
analysis
c) Commercialization
d) Test
marketing
e) Screening

51. Breakeven
analysis is a tool that marketers are likely to employ during the ___________
stage of the new-product development process.
a) screening
b) concept
testing
c) business
analysis
d) product
development
e) test
marketing

52. “Is
the demand strong enough?” is a question that marketers ask during the
___________ phase of new-product development.
a) screening
b) concept
testing
c) business
analysis
d) product
development
e) test
marketing

53. During
which stage of new-product development does the firm consider profitability?
a) Idea
generation
b) Testing
c) Business
analysis
d) Product
development
e) Compatibility
research

54. As
Justin works on the prototype of a new action-oriented computer game, he is
engaging in which phase of the new-product development process?
a) Idea
generation
b) Commercialization
c) Test
marketing
d) Screening
e) Product
development

55. Ideally,
test marketing should follow which stage in the new-product development
process?
a) Commercialization
b) Business
analysis
c) Screening
d) Limited
production
e) Product
development

56. “How
much quality should we build into the product?” is a question that marketers
ask during the ___________ phase of new-product development.
a) commercialization
b) concept
testing
c) business
analysis
d) product
development
e) test
marketing

57. The
phase of the new-product development process when the organization determines
the technological feasibility of producing the product at a cost that results
in a reasonable selling price is
a) test
marketing.
b) commercialization.
c) concept
testing.
d) product
development.
e) business
analysis.

58. After
building a prototype of his new device, Brad is asked to conduct rigorous
functional testing to see if the device meets performance and safety
qualifications. This is part of the ____ phase of the new-product development
process.
a) product
design
b) screening
c) product
development
d) concept
testing
e) test
marketing

59. After
a company has created a prototype during the product development stage, its
performance, or ___________ must be tested.
a) appeal
to customers
b) dependability
c) durability
d) functionality
e) pricing

60. Product
failure is a concern of all marketers. Which of the following phases of
new-product development is best able to measure this concern?
a) Screening
b) Concept
testing
c) Business
analysis
d) Product
development
e) Test
marketing

61. Top
managers at Cincinnati Microwave believe that they have a successful working
prototype of their new radar detector and plan to go directly to regional
commercialization of the new product. In this instance, they are contemplating
skipping the __________ phase of the new-product development process.
a) screening
b) test
marketing
c) product
development
d) business
analysis
e) idea
generation

62. The
test-marketing stage
a) is
an extension of the screening stage.
b) should
come immediately after business analysis.
c) ensures
that the product will not fail.
d) is
a sample launching of the entire marketing mix.
e) prevents
competitors from copying the product.

63. Select
the true statement concerning test marketing.
a) Test
marketing is simply an extension of the screening and developing stages.
b) Test
marketing should be conducted after all the marketing mix variables have been
finalized.
c) Test
marketing is a limited introduction of the product in areas chosen to represent
the intended market.
d) If
the product is successful in the test market, then it is ensured of success
upon total introduction.
e) Large
corporations usually launch test-marketing efforts in one small area at a time.

64. Sales
and cost analyses occur most frequently in what stage of the new-product
development process?
a) Screening
b) Product
development
c) Test
marketing
d) Commercialization
e) Business
analysis

65. PepsiCo
has a new flavor of soft drink that it wants to test to determine reactions of
probable buyers. Which of the following test-market characteristics would be
least useful to PepsiCo when testing the new soft drink?
a) There
are research and audit services available.
b) Retailers
would be cooperative.
c) Testing
efforts would not be easily jammed by competitors.
d) Tourism
is a major industry in the area.
e) The
city has stable year-round sales of soft drinks.

66. Angela
and Ralph at Tablerock Foods believe they have come up with a delicious low-calorie
dessert, but they have some doubt about which of two promotional and pricing
campaigns will be better received by consumers. In this instance, they probably
should proceed to the ___________ stage of the new-product development process.
a) business
analysis
b) commercialization
c) screening
d) test
marketing
e) product
development

67. Competitive
interference with a test-marketing program is called
a) tactical
interference.
b) jamming.
c) test
interference.
d) squeezing.
e) ramming.

68. If
Jason Carter, product manager at SeaRay Boats, became aware that Bass Boats,
Inc., was in the process of test marketing a new line of shallow-water fishing
boats in the southeast region, he might want to engage in ___________ to reduce
the validity of the other firm’s results.
a) testing
interference
b) leadership
pricing
c) jamming
d) test
marketing
e) stress
marketing

69. One
disadvantage of test marketing a new product is that
a) the
product is distributed on a regional basis.
b) competitors
may copy the product.
c) the
results give little indication of the product’s future success.
d) price,
advertising, and packaging cannot be varied from market to market.
e) it
might fail before it can be commercialized.

70. Stacey
and Evan are preparing budgets for a new product as well as finalizing plans
for the full-scale marketing and manufacturing of the new Genie-Vac. They are
in the ____ phase of the new-product development process.
a) test
marketing
b) business
analysis
c) concept
testing
d) product
development
e) commercialization

71. When
Natalie and Chris analyze the results from the recently completed test market
to determine if any changes in the marketing mix are needed, they are in the
___________ phase of the new-product development process.
a) idea
generation
b) commercialization
c) test
marketing
d) business
analysis
e) screening

72. Early
in the commercialization phase, marketers must make decisions about
a) warranties,
repairs, and replacement parts.
b) product
features and breakeven points.
c) functionality,
safety, and convenience.
d) the
proposed marketing mix variables.
e) which
ideas to further pursue.

73. Often,
a new product is launched in stages during commercialization. This gradual
introduction of the product is known as
a) market
development.
b) regional
commercialization.
c) roll-out.
d) market
extension.
e) competitive
jamming.

74. Which
of the following is a disadvantage of gradually introducing a product to
market?
a) It
reduces the risk of introducing a new product.
b) It
is easier logistically to introduce it all at once.
c) It
is difficult to slow down production enough for a gradual introduction.
d) It
allows competitors to monitor the results of the new product.
e) It
prevents product differentiation based on geographical differences.

75. A
new variety of Doritos is initially introduced in Ft. Worth, Texas; Columbia,
South Carolina; Peoria, Illinois; and Spokane, Washington. After its initial
success, Frito Lay markets the Doritos in those entire states, then the
adjacent states, and finally the entire country. Frito-Lay is using a _____ for
its new variety of Doritos.
a) multi-stage
introduction
b) roll-out
approach
c) test-market
expansion
d) mass
commercialization
e) trickle-down
approach

76. Three
major ways in which marketers engage in product differentiation are
a) product
quality, product design and features, and product support services.
b) product
quality, product support services, and packaging.
c) product
support services, product design and features, and product positioning.
d) product
positioning, product quality, and product management.
e) product
positioning, product design and features, and product promotion.

77. Elena
recently purchased a pair of sunglasses because she liked their quality, styling,
and price. Her friend Katie purchased an almost identical pair, except that
Katie’s sunglasses had the name “Armani” imprinted on the side. Elena probably
based her purchase decision on ___________, whereas Katie apparently based her
decision on ___________.
a) price;
product quality
b) real
product differences; perceived product image
c) perceived
product image; product quality
d) product
value; perceived product image
e) product
design; product quality

78. The
ability of a product to provide the same level of quality over time is called
a) consistency.
b) longevity.
c) variability.
d) status.
e) image.

79. The
overall characteristics of a product that allow it to perform as expected in
satisfying customer needs is
a) quality.
b) consistency.
c) durability.
d) styling.
e) design.

80. Victor
thinks that a Lexus coupe is a quality vehicle, yet compared to a Mercedes
Benz, he feels the quality of a Lexus is not as high. This demonstrates that
the dimension of _____ is relative or difficult to describe without a basis of
comparison.
a) consistency
of quality
b) level
of quality
c) differentiation
d) product
features
e) product
positioning

81. ___________
and ___________ are important characteristics of quality for consumer markets,
and ___________ and ___________ are important characteristics of quality for
business markets.
a) Reliability/ease
of use; technical suitability/ease of repair
b) Technical
suitability/reasonable price; trusted brand name/ease of repair
c) Durability/technical
suitability; company reputation/ease of repair
d) Ease
of maintenance/company reputation; durability/technical suitability
e) Trusted
brand name/ease of repair; reliability/company reputation

82. Schwinn
adds features to its bicycles no other companies offer in order to create
a) commercialization.
b) consistency
of quality.
c) styling.
d) product
positioning.
e) product
differentiation.

83. When
determining how a product is conceived, planned, produced, and even its
physical appearance and its specific characteristics, one is really talking
about the product’s
a) positioning.
b) level
and consistency of quality.
c) ability
to meet customer service needs.
d) design,
styling, and level of quality.
e) design,
styling, and features.

84. The
three major ways to modify a product include
a) aesthetic,
quality, and functional changes.
b) extensions,
generations, and upgrades.
c) color,
size, and quantity modifications.
d) styling,
product features, and product design.
e) quality,
quantity, and design.

85. If
Ford adds a driver-side sliding door, side impact airbags, and a small
television with DVD player to its Freestar Minivan, it is differentiating its
product based on
a) styling.
b) support
services.
c) design.
d) product
features.
e) product
quality.

86. Which
of the following is the best definition of product features?
a) The
things a product does that provide benefits to the customer
b) Mechanical
efforts or activities a company provides that add value to a product
c) Specific
design characteristics that allow a product to perform certain tasks
d) How
a product is conceived, planned, and produced with the necessary functions
e) The
physical appearance of a product

87. To
differentiate their products, companies sometimes emphasize the product support
services that they offer. This is especially true when
a) the
company’s prices are higher than the competition’s.
b) the
company introduces a new product.
c) consumers
are willing to pay for product support services.
d) consumers
perceive all products in a market to have essentially the same quality, design,
and features.
e) the
quality of the company’s products is inferior to the quality of competing
products.

88. Best
Buy differentiates its product offerings from its competition with stores like
Sam’s, by offering delivery and installation, financing arrangements, and
repairs. Best Buy is differentiating through
a) product
ancillaries.
b) company
styling.
c) customer
services.
d) company
features.
e) product
features.

89. If
Hewlett-Packard provides its customers with a help line for computer questions
and problems, it is differentiating itself through
a) support
of its level of quality.
b) product
support services.
c) a
help line feature.
d) product
features.
e) customer
requests.

90. Product
deletion can best be described as the process of deleting a product from the
product mix when it
a) is
perceived as a failure by top management.
b) is
reviewed negatively by a systematic review board.
c) increases
production costs and decreases profits.
d) no
longer responds to promotional efforts.
e) no
longer satisfies a sufficient number of customers.

91. Product
deletion
a) tends
to be an easy task for most organizations.
b) may
be opposed by management.
c) involves
immediate termination.
d) is
a matter of indifference to customers.
e) usually
occurs only with convenience items.

92. A
suggested approach to deleting products, in which each product is evaluated
periodically to determine its impact on the overall effectiveness of the firm’s
product mix, is called a(n)
a) evaluation
study.
b) formal
evaluation.
c) product
inspection.
d) systematic
review.
e) reassessment
examination.

93. The
product deletion process is similar to the ___________ step of the new-product
development process because both involve deciding whether the product should be
in the product mix based on an assessment of sales, costs, and profits.
a) idea
generation
b) screening
c) product
development
d) test
marketing
e) business
analysis

94. Marketers
of a particular brand of ice cream have decided to delete their line of ice
cream bars. They will do so by letting the product decline and not change the
current marketing strategy. This method of deletion is called
a) business
analysis.
b) immediate
drop.
c) screening.
d) phase
out.
e) runout.

95. If
7-UP decides Diet 7-Up with Vitamins is not reaching profit expectations and
simply allows the product to decline without any change in marketing strategy,
it is using a ____ deletion strategy.
a) run-out
b) immediate
drop
c) slow-down
d) phase-out
e) drop-down

96. A
runout policy of product deletion
a) lets
the product decline without changing the product strategy.
b) is
an immediate-drop decision.
c) exploits
any strengths left in the product.
d) raises
the price of the product continually to secure as much profit as possible
before the product is priced out of the market.
e) occurs
when production cannot keep pace with demand because of material shortages.

97. Dropping
an unprofitable product immediately is the best strategy when
a) all
advertising and promotional efforts have been exhausted.
b) customers
have a negative outlook on other products.
c) losses
are too great to prolong the product’s life.
d) the
product’s performance cannot be improved.
e) there
is low compatibility with the firm’s business strategies.

98. If
Kraft General Foods offered you a position in which you would have total
marketing responsibility for all of its cheese products, this position would
probably hold the title of __________ manager.
a) brand
b) area
c) product
d) sales
e) marketing

99. A
______ is responsible for a product, product line, or several distinct products
in an interrelated group within an organization.
a) product
marketer
b) brand
manager
c) market
manager
d) product
manager
e) line
manager

100. A
brand manager in a multiproduct firm would be responsible for
a) performance
of a specific brand.
b) all
brands within a product line.
c) branding
the products of the firm.
d) all
products in the brand-line group.
e) all
brands made by the firm.

101. If
Megan Roberts were given total marketing responsibility over Diet Cherry 7Up,
she would hold the position of __________ manager.
a) product
b) sales
c) marketing
d) advertising
e) brand

102. Kyle
Bolger of U.S. Hospital Supply Corporation has responsibility for managing the
marketing activities for products aimed at nursing homes and extended care
facilities. Kyle’s job is that of a(n)
a) product
manager.
b) area
manager.
c) director
of operations.
d) market
manager.
e) sales
coordinator.

103. Luis
Mayo is an accountant at Ralston Purina. However, he is currently working with
a group to determine the feasibility of a new brand of hot breakfast cereal.
After the product is launched, Luis will return to the accounting department.
His present position can be described as a
a) product
manager.
b) brand
manager.
c) general
manager.
d) member
of a venture team.
e) market
manager.

104. The
members of a venture team come from
a) the
marketing department.
b) a
consulting firm.
c) the
research and development department.
d) the
production and finance departments.
e) different
functional areas of an organization.

105. The
following organizational approaches accomplish tasks necessary to develop and
manage products: market manager approach, product manager approach, and the
_________ approach.
a) brand
manager
b) functional
team
c) multiproduct
manager
d) special
projects
e) venture
team

106. Elizabeth
from marketing, Manuel from finance, Tony from production, Cynthia from
engineering, and Alexandra from research and development were put together by
their company to develop a new low-calorie, high-nutrition snack treat. These
five people are a(n) __________ at their company.
a) venture
team
b) SWAT
team
c) brand
management group
d) idea
generation group
e) product
positioning group

Use the following to answer questions
107-110:

Cheetos Fat-free Crunchies is a product
developed through advanced technology. Cheetos engineered a technique for
making reduced-fat snacks that taste cheesier and stay fresh longer. Cheetos
introduced Fat-free Crunchies in limited markets in 2008 and began national
distribution in 2009.

About 18 months later, a series of
competitors’ ads was run to counter claims that Cheetos Crunchies actually
contained 1.5 grams of fat, and that they contained preservatives and
additives. Research showed that the taste of Cheetos Crunchies was also
perceived negatively by some people. To save the product, Cheetos reduced the
remaining fat to 0 grams, took out the preservatives, and improved the taste.

107. Improving
the taste of CheetosCrunchies was a(n)
__________ modification.
a) quality
b) sensory
c) functional
d) benefit
e) aesthetic

108. Cheetos
produces several cheese snack products and is considering a new Cheetos brand
of crackers. This new Cheetos brand of
crackers would most likely be an example of
a) a
product modification.
b) a
line extension.
c) a
quality modification.
d) a
functional extension.
e) an
aesthetic modification.

109. In
2008, Cheetos was in which phase of new-product development?
a) Idea
screening
b) Product
development
c) Test
marketing
d) Business
analysis
e) Idea
generation

110. Suppose
that Cheetos stops production of Cheetos Fat-free Crunchies and sells all of
its remaining inventory to a warehouse club. This would be an example of a(n)
a) strategy
for the maturity phase.
b) phase
out product deletion strategy.
c) immediate-drop
decision.
d) pullout
product deletion policy.
e) return
to test marketing.

Use the following to answer questions
111-114:

Jonathan Moore, president of Polar
Manufacturing Company, has just reviewed the performance reports for the
previous year and sees that there are some areas in which the company needs to
improve. He specifically feels they
could do a better job in managing Polar’s product mix. Jonathan calls a meeting
of all the managers responsible for each of the product lines that Polar
currently manufactures. The group
decides that they need to eliminate the complete industrial product line of ice
chests, and plan to do so by letting the product decline without any changes in
the marketing strategy or product. The
group also decides to delete Polar’s line of personal thermal underwear,
however this product is to be discontinued within the week due to its
unprofitability. While discussing these
strategies, the group has also uncovered several customer groups for which new
products could be developed. The
managers decide to assemble a group of people from all functional areas of the
company and give them the responsibility for all aspects of the new-product development.

111. The
decision to delete the industrial product line of ice chests is an example of
deleting a product through a(n) _____, while the decision to drop the thermal
underwear line is an example of a(n) ______.
a) run-out;
phase out
b) phase-out;
immediate drop
c) immediate
drop; run-out
d) immediate
drop; phase-out
e) phase-out;
run-out

112. Polar
management is currently in which stage of new product development?
a) idea
generation
b) screening
c) concept
testing
d) product
development
e) test
marketing

113. The
group of people that management has assembled to take on the task of
new-product development is best described as
a) a
buying center.
b) a
product development task force.
c) a
marketing development team.
d)

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